In a word, my understanding is this. On the one hand, education is an act of giving money and getting non-monetary returns. It is also a kind of consumption. But at the same time, its non-monetary return may indirectly bring capital return. So it can be regarded as an indirect investment. But this is limited to the investment in the educated. Why do you say he is pure consumption? Because this kind of behavior only consumes money. Do not directly generate monetary returns. In a sense, it is a kind of consumption investment. The internal reason is roughly like this. To be profound, I don't have that deep writing. You have to understand. Similar behaviors and advertisements.