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Does anyone know how to discuss the relationship between education and prejudice by deduction and induction? I don't understand. Very nerve-racking
Classmate, are you going to take the postgraduate entrance examination, or are you a sociology major? Look at Albaby's social research methods and you will have the answer. Simply put, the variable of education can be divided into educated and uneducated, while prejudice can be divided into biased and unbiased. The relationship between the two can be assumed as follows: the education level is positively related to prejudice, then observe how many educated people are impartial and how many uneducated people are biased, and finally see if the assumption is correct. Induction is to observe first, then assume, and finally draw a theory. In a word, deduction leads to hypothesis from theory, and induction leads to theory from observation. Hope useful to you